I think, therefor I am. René Descartes stated that he knew that he existed due to the fact that he had thoughts. How so, could he set up laid that the population around him existed? Couldnt it be feasible to contest that if there is no proof that some adept else has thoughts (i.e., if you whoremastert experience their thoughts, how do you know those thoughts exist), hence how do we know that those around us exist?
We cannot know that something exists unless we experience it. So how could he know the rest of the domain of a function around him existed? To pronounce that experiencing existence comes down to still feel around at the population, then wouldnt it be valid to say that we only exist in our minds? The world is made up of interpretations by the electrical and chemical impulses that make up the principal. So, couldnt it be possible to argue that no one truly knows that the world exists?
If the world is made up by these interpretations, then how can one not argue the same about dreaming. aspiration is made up by imagined situations and places while a mortal sleeps. In dreams, a person can experience taste, sight, smell, touch, and hearing, just like the physical world.
If our dreams are made up of the same substances that our so-called waking world is made up of, then there is only one difference between the cardinal worlds; we can awake from dreaming. So then, one could easily argue that thats how we as humans know exactly what reality is. perchance though, there is a way for humans to awake from reality.
No one is quite sure what happens when a person dies. We know that the heart, lungs, and brain stop working. We know that we turn cold and decay.
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